I have a basic question:
As far as I can tell the Roe v. Wade decision hinged on the fact that there is an implicit right to privacy in the Constitution. The NSA surveillance programs seem to revoke that constitutional right. It might be argued that there is still an implicit right to privacy in certain matters like healthcare (although why the Constitution would protect privacy in healthcare but not in personal communication is beyond me). However, the current intrusion by HHS and the IRS into whether each person has health insurance, what type, and how much they are paying seems to dispel that notion as well.
So, if there is no longer a Constitutional protection in regards to medical privacy, why can states not adopt full prohibitions against abortions?