ok, this was a question Samsara asked in comments to the frontpage post – at 1pm today the Senate voted for cloture on the CR, and the story says it was unanimous. I checked and yup, that does mean that Sen/ Cruz just voted for cloture.
I just have no idea why he would vote for cloture after doing the filibuster. He said a vote for cloture was a vote for Obamacare!
Obviously I don’t know anything about politics or the senate but really this is ridiculous and I wonder if Rush asked him about how he was going to vote on his show.
Can someone please shed light on this? am seriously confused and frustrated.
story – http://www.washingtonpost.com/politics/sen-ted-cruz-ends-his-talkathon/2013/09/25/4fcf8b66-25f3-11e3-ad0d-b7c8d2a594b9_story.html
vote record – http://www.senate.gov/legislative/LIS/roll_call_lists/roll_call_vote_cfm.cfm?congress=113&session=1&vote=00205
under the Yea column –
Cruz (R-TX), Yea
UPDATE: ah, I see the fix is in now. The GOP will agree to delay the individual mandate and call that a victory. Liberal Ezra Klein is saying thats a good idea too.
the fix is totally in. Cruz voted for cloture, the senate will take out the defunding language. the house will send a new CR with delayed mandate. Senate will pass that one and Obama will sign. No defunding, GOP claims victory, Obama claims he compromised.
I feel sick. Unless there is a good reason for Cruz to have voted for cloture? Please? anyone?
UPDATE 2 – dsteere gives this link which kind of explains why Cruz voted yes:
bottom line is that real cloture is Friday not today (fake cloture? wtf). I have no idea what the heck is going on. Cruz better vote No on friday though.